Matthew 20:28 Even as the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his life a ransom for many.
1 Cor 6:20 For ye are bought with a price: therefore glorify God in your body, and in your spirit, which are God’s.
1 Cor 7:23 Ye are bought with a price; be not ye the servants of men.
What was the price?
Gal 3:13 Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us, for it is written: “Cursed is everyone who is hung on a tree.”
1 Ptr 1:For you know that it was not with perishable things such as silver or gold that you were redeemed from the empty way of life handed down to you from your forefathers, but with the precious blood of Christ, a lamb without blemish or defect.
That is all very well and good. But it still does not address my point that our redemption was not “finished” until Jesus Christ rose from the dead. So therefore, it cannot have been redemption that was meant by the “It” in “It” is finished.
Good. I’m glad we agree on this. However, where does it ever say that Jesus drank of this cup? It doesn’t. However the drinking is alluded to when He’s praying in the garden.
If you want to go down this track, I could counter with where does it say that He drank the first and the second? For that matter, how do we know even that it was really a passover since John did not say it was?
I comment more on this shortly after I understand your position more on the 4th cup.
I already have so not quite sure what you mean here.
A little note at this stage. The Catholic Church (as far as I know) has no defined interpretation of the this cup. What I have been advancing here is Scott Hahn’s exegesis so please note that I am not defending dogma here. I do think though that Scott has made a very good case for this kind of interpretation.
Before we can go further, we have to address “not drink again of the fruit of the vine until that day when I drink it anew in the kingdom of God”. Your position would have to mean that the day Christ was crucified is the day when he drinks it anew in the kingdom of God. Correct?
To be honest, I have not really given that much thought.
Having said that though, this is my musing on it.
The kingdom of God here does not necessarily force an eschatological reading.
Jesus is referred to as the kingdom of God. In Christ’s person is realized the kingdom of God.
But first let us ask, what would be the characteristic of the kingdom of God? Would it not be where God is supreme, Where God’s will is done?
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So let us look at this from a broader Biblical perspective.
In the beginning of creation, we have the paradise, the sacrum convivium where God’s will is done and where God reigns but also dwells in easy fellowship with man.
Then comes the fall and the recapitulation by Chrsit.
Let us contrast the three stage of these events.
Falls 1st Stage – the lie of the devil: you will be come gods
Recapitulation 1stStage- The truth of Christ who is God.
Fall 2nd Stage – Pride – Adam and Eve who was made of humus (of earth) refuses to be just humus and wants to grasp at deity.
Recapitulation 3rd stage – Christ who IS Deity, humbles Himself and becomes human (Human and Humility both derive from the word humus – of the earth).
Fall 3rd Stage – Because of pride Adam and Eve disobeys in effect saying I will be god. My will be done. In the process brings death.
**Recapitulation 3rd Stage **– Jesus in humble submission to the will of the Father obeys even unto death (Not mine but thy will be done) so therefore purchases life for us once again.
So back to the kingdom of God. Once Adam and Eve declared their autonomy, the kingdom of God is no more. The will of God is no longer done. The will of the self takes over.
Christ in perfectly obeying the will of the Father submitting to it unto the cross , has by that action restored the Lordship of God in man. Once more, a human obeys the Father perfectly. So as He hangs on that cross, by submitting to this ignominious end, He reverses that disobedience and so we can definitely say that at this point, the Kingdom of God is once again restored by this perfect obedience.
Christ obviously did not ascend on that day, but descended into the prison and preach to the captives until the resurrection, three days later. Could you clarify this for me.
That is true. But this only becomes problematic if we limit it to an eschatological interpretation. You may be right in limiting this to an eschatological reading but for this to be true, every piece of the puzzle has to fall together and it just does not do that.