TNT said:
Is Lk inerrant in the Greek, or inerrant in the non-existent hebrew.?
If she spoke in the Jew tongue it would have been Aramaic.
Did Jesus say PETER, PETRA, PETROS, Or did He say CEPHAS, KEPHA In Matt 16:18?
**Where is your Certificate of Interpretation **?
Until then, you are no more than “any other lord”[/QUOT
**JESUS’ WORDS
Not surprisingly, the seven words of Jesus recorded in their original tongue, reflect these two aspects, namely
Code:
(i) their essential identity with known Hebrew; yet
(ii) some slight Galilean regional differences*.
Ephphatha – Jesus’ command to the deaf mute to “be opened” (Mark 7:34) – is directly from the Biblical Hebrew
phphatha, חתפ, meaning “open”, as found in the standard Hebrew-English Lexicon of the Old Testament,[47]. Thus even Bruce Metzger concedes that “‘ephphatha’ can be explained as either Hebrew or Aramaic”
[48]. Isaac Rabinowitz is less ambivalent, declaring emphatically that “there are no valid philological grounds for affirming, and there is every valid reason to deny, that
ephphatha can represent an Aramaic … form. The transliteration can, indeed,
only represent the Hebrew niphal masculine singular imperative …
Ephphatha is certainly Hebrew, not Aramaic”.[49]
Likewise,
cumi, or
cum, in Jesus’ command to the dead daughter of Jairus to “arise” (Mark 5:41). The word comes directly from the Old Testament Hebrew
םוק, “cum”, meaning “arise, stand up, stand”, while to this day the modern Hebrew for “get up” is
cum.
[50] What more appropriate, in the house of a synagogue ruler so familiar with Hebrew, than such a rich Hebrew command: “arise” – not to his Sabbath congregation to rise from their seats, but to his very own daughter to get up from the dead!
Eloi, Eloi (“My God, My God”, Mark 15:34) is clearly related to the Hebrew word used at times for “my God” in the Psalms (cf.
יחלא, “my God”, Ps. 18:28; 139:19;
יחלא, “My God”, Mk. 15:34).
Astonishingly – given that Eloi, Eloi has always been cited as proof of the Aramaic source of the words – we find that the Targum of Psalm 22:1(2) does not begin with “Eloi, Eloi” but “Eli, Eli”, as in the Hebrew.
[51] In two ways “Eloi, Eloi” is different from the Aramaic – with “oi, oi” instead of “I, I” and the short “E, E” instead of the long “Ay, Ay” (as in “day”).
[52]
Clearly, we must look elsewhere than to Aramaic for its pronunciation. The obvious explanation lies in the **distinctive Galilean accent **which we have noted. That is, in *Eloi, Eloi *we have the Galilean Jesus quoting Psalm 22:1(2) from the Hebrew Bible, carefully recorded with his distinctive pronunciation by Mark. With equal fidelity to what transpired, Matthew dispenses with the accent as such, but still records the same utterance straight from the Hebrew Bible. This alone can account for the seemingly contradictory facts that
